Questions

  1. Components of project feasibility study are?

    • Option A: Technical Feasibility
    • Option B: Financial Feasibility
    • Option C: Economic Feasibility
    • Option D: All of these
  2. Which of the options is not a notable challenge while scheduling a project?

    • Option A: Independent activities
    • Option B: Costly delay
    • Option C: Too many workers may be required
    • Option D: Deadlines exist
  3. Which of the following is an important factor that can affect the accuracy and efficacy of estimates?

    • Option A: Planning process
    • Option B: Project complexity
    • Option C: Degree of structural uncertainty
    • Option D: Project size
  4. What is the prime responsibility of site management?

    • Option A: Training for site persons
    • Option B: Establishment of work permit system
    • Option C: Implement safety rules
    • Option D: Conduct field quality audit
  5. A 66.6% risk is considered as?

    • Option A: moderate
    • Option B: Very low
    • Option C: high
    • Option D: low
  6. Which of the following is said to be an external risk factor for an entrepreneur?

    • Option A: Innovation Risk
    • Option B: Employee Risk
    • Option C: None of these
    • Option D: Strategic Risk
  7. What is PERT analysis based on?

    • Option A: All of the above
    • Option B: Optimistic time
    • Option C: Pessimistic time
    • Option D: Most likely time
  8. What is the earliest start time rule?

    • Option A: It compares the activity’s starting time for an activity successor.
    • Option B: It directs when a project can start.
    • Option C: It compares the activity’s end time for an activity predecessor.
    • Option D: It regulates when a project must begin.
  9. Which of the following is not achieved by an automated estimation tool?

    • Option A: Predicting software schedules
    • Option B: Predicting clients demands
    • Option C: Predicting software cost
    • Option D: Predicting staffing levels
  10. Design phase consists of?

    • Option A: None of the above
    • Option B: Input received
    • Option C: Output received
    • Option D: Both A and B
  11. The application of special purpose material handling equipment is?

    • Option A: Line Layout
    • Option B: Process Layout
    • Option C: Both process layout and line layout
    • Option D: None of these
  12. If the EOQ is 360 units, order cost is Rs per order and carrying cost is Rs.20 per unit, what is the usage?

    • Option A: 2654 units
    • Option B: 2592 units
    • Option C: 1574 units
    • Option D: 1875 units
  13. To achieve these prime objectives, we have to conduct first?

    • Option A: Financial feasibility study
    • Option B: Marketing feasibility study
    • Option C: Preliminary feasibility study
    • Option D: Technical and engineering feasibility study
  14. Activities P, Q, and R instantly follow activity M, and their current starting times are 12, 19, and 10. So, what is the latest finishing time for activity M?

    • Option A: Cannot be determined
    • Option B: 18
    • Option C: 10
    • Option D: 11
  15. If a technology required to convert the idea of product offering is available, it is known as ____ feasibility study.

    • Option A: Financial
    • Option B: Technical
    • Option C: Commercial
    • Option D: Economic
  16. Which of the following is the characteristic of a perfect competition market?

    • Option A: Product differentiation
    • Option B: many buyers and seller
    • Option C: Barriers to entry
    • Option D: few large firms dominating the market
  17. The best tool to ensure that there is neither piling up stocks nor shortage of materials in a project to run it economically is?

    • Option A: Economic Order Quantity
    • Option B: Gantt Chart Method
    • Option C: Inventory Control and Management
    • Option D: ABC Analysis
  18. What does the breakeven point represent in business?

    • Option A: The point at which total revenue equals total costs
    • Option B: The point at which total revenue exceeds total costs
    • Option C: The point at which total costs exceed total revenue
    • Option D: The point at which fixed costs are fully recovered
  19. Activity in a network diagram is represented by?

    • Option A: Rectangles
    • Option B: Circles
    • Option C: Squares
    • Option D: Arrows
  20. What is the completion of a CPM network diagram activity commonly known as?

    • Option A: Node
    • Option B: Connector
    • Option C: Event
    • Option D: All of the above
  21. What is the primary purpose of a production feasibility study?

    • Option A: Assessing market demand
    • Option B: Evaluating technical requirements
    • Option C: Analyzing financial projections
    • Option D: Identifying legal regulations
  22. Activities A, B, and C are the immediate predecessors for Y activity. If the earliest finishing time for the three activities are 12, 15, and 10, then what will be the earliest starting time for Y?

    • Option A: 10
    • Option B: Cannot be determined
    • Option C: 15
    • Option D: 12
  23. What is the particular task performance in CPM known as?

    • Option A: Activity
    • Option B: Event
    • Option C: Contract
    • Option D: Dummy
  24. Project Performance consists of?

    • Option A: Time
    • Option B: Cost
    • Option C: Quality
    • Option D: All of these
  25. What does a technical feasibility study primarily focus on?

    • Regulatory compliance
    • Market trends analysis
    • Supplier evaluation
    • Equipment and technology requirements

Analysis

Mapping of Questions to Syllabus Units

Question #Key Concept TestedMapped Syllabus Unit
1Components of Feasibility StudyUnit 9: Project Feasibility Studies
2Project Scheduling ChallengesUnit 11: Project Scheduling and Costing
3Factors in EstimationUnit 11: Project Scheduling and Costing
4Site Management ResponsibilityUnit 8: Project Management (Implementation Phase)
5Risk Level ClassificationUnit 1: ENTREPRENEURSHIP (Risk perspective)
6External Risk for an EntrepreneurUnit 1: ENTREPRENEURSHIP (Risk perspective)
7PERT Analysis BasisUnit 11: Project Scheduling and Costing
8Earliest Start Time (CPM/PERT Rule)Unit 11: Project Scheduling and Costing
9Automated Estimation Tool CapabilitiesUnit 11: Project Scheduling and Costing
10Design Phase in Project Life CycleUnit 8: Project Management (Conceptualization Phase)
11Material Handling EquipmentUnit 9: Project Feasibility Studies (Technical Appraisal)
12Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) CalculationUnit 11: Project Scheduling and Costing
13Initial Step (Feasibility Study)Unit 9: Project Feasibility Studies
14Latest Finishing Time (CPM/PERT Calc)Unit 11: Project Scheduling and Costing
15Technical Feasibility DefinitionUnit 9: Project Feasibility Studies
16Perfect Competition MarketUnit 3: Idea Incubation (Industry/Competitor Analysis)
17Inventory Control (EOQ/ABC)Unit 11: Project Scheduling and Costing
18Breakeven Point DefinitionUnit 9: Project Feasibility Studies (Financial Appraisal)
19Network Diagram RepresentationUnit 11: Project Scheduling and Costing
20CPM Network Diagram Terminology (Event)Unit 11: Project Scheduling and Costing
21Production Feasibility PurposeUnit 9: Project Feasibility Studies (Technical Appraisal)
22Earliest Starting Time (CPM/PERT Calc)Unit 11: Project Scheduling and Costing
23CPM Terminology (Activity)Unit 11: Project Scheduling and Costing
24Project Performance Metrics (Triple Constraint)Unit 8: Project Management: Definitions
25Technical Feasibility FocusUnit 9: Project Feasibility Studies

Concise Analysis

Here is the distribution of questions across the syllabus:

  • Entrepreneurship Section (Units 1-7): 3 Questions
  • Project Management Section (Units 8-13): 22 Questions

Breakdown by Unit:

  • Unit 11 (Project Scheduling and Costing): 12 questions
  • Unit 9 (Project Feasibility Studies): 7 questions
  • Unit 8 (Project Management: Definitions): 3 questions
  • Unit 1 (ENTREPRENEURSHIP): 2 questions
  • Unit 3 (Idea Incubation): 1 question
  • Other Units: 0 questions

Key Observations:

  1. Heavily Skewed Towards Project Management: The assessment is overwhelmingly focused on the Project Management portion of the syllabus, with 22 out of 25 questions coming from this section. The Entrepreneurship section is covered only superficially.

  2. Dominance of Scheduling and Feasibility: Within Project Management, two units form the core of the exam:

    • Unit 11 (Scheduling and Costing) is the most critical, covering nearly half the exam with questions on PERT, CPM, critical path calculations, and cost/inventory management.
    • Unit 9 (Feasibility Studies) is the second most important, with a strong focus on defining and identifying the components of technical, financial, and economic feasibility.
  3. Major Gaps in Coverage: Several key topics from the syllabus are entirely absent. There are no questions on Project Planning (Unit 10, e.g., WBS), Project Monitoring and Control (Unit 12), or the practical application with MS-Project (Unit 13). Similarly, most entrepreneurship topics like innovation, funding, and motivation are not tested.

Conclusion:

This assessment is a test of core, traditional project management techniques rather than a balanced evaluation of the entire syllabus. Success is highly dependent on a strong understanding of feasibility analysis and, most importantly, the mechanics of project scheduling and costing using PERT/CPM. The entrepreneurship content, while present in the syllabus, is not a significant factor in this set of questions.